FATO, or final approach and take-off area, has the meaning given by Part 1 of the CASR Dictionary. (1)     When a pressurised aircraft begins a flight with at least 2 pilots, as required by or under the civil aviation legislation or the AFM, it must be carrying portable protective breathing equipment (portable PBE units) for each flight crew member in accordance with this section. At least 997 hPa but less than 1 013.2 hPa. refers to BKN as 5-7 oktas of cloud. Mobile, Windows and Floating License. (b)   fly for 15 minutes at the holding speed for the aircraft at 1 500 ft above the aerodrome elevation in ISA conditions; and. , in relation to cloud, has the same meaning as in ICAO Document 8896. Subject to clause 3, the equipment for indicated airspeed must include a means of preventing malfunction due to condensation or icing. (8)     If an approved transponder capable of reporting pressure altitude is fitted to an aircraft for a flight, it must be operated with altitude reporting enabled. The requirement for holding fuel will allow ground staff to be alerted in the event of a failure of the aircraft’s VHF radiocommunication system. is a transponder function that uses a unique aircraft address to selectively call individual aircraft and support advanced surveillance using Mode S EHS, Mode S ELS, or Mode S ES capabilities. 104, 26.38             Flight with inoperative FDR, CVR or combination flight recording equipment 105, Division 26.10       Aircraft interior communication systems. (1)     Subject to subsection (4), an FDR fitted to an aircraft under this Division must record continuously. 1. Category D rectification interval means a rectification interval that is 120 consecutive days. 46, 11.13             Controlled aerodromes — clearance required. (4)     The pilot in command of an aircraft fitted with a single VHF radiocommunication system may only nominate an aerodrome with PAL as a destination alternate aerodrome if: (a)   reliable arrangements have been made for a qualified and responsible person to be in attendance to manually switch on the aerodrome lighting; and. a VFR flight by night, the pilot in command must nominate a destination alternate aerodrome that is within 1 hour’s flight time of the planned destination aerodrome: (3)     If aircraft navigation is to be conducted using a GNSS receiver certified only to (E)TSO C-129. automatic ELT is an ELT that meets the requirements in: (a)   must be automatically activated on impact; and. Protective breathing equipment — flight crew members, When a pressurised aircraft begins a flight with at least 2 pilots, as required by or under the civil aviation legislation or the AFM, it must be carrying. in accordance with procedures published in the authorised aeronautical information. (a)   the child is restrained by an approved child restraint system; and, (b)   the age, height and weight of the child using the system is within the range specified by the manufacturer of the system; and, (i)  used according to the manufacturer’s instructions; and, (ii)  secured so as not to be a hazard to the child using the system or to any other person; and. 11.08  CASA approval required for flight in the NAT-HLA. is short for the Federal Aviation Administration of the United States. (a)   an item of equipment used to display the. Operational variations — procedures and requirements, (1)     This section applies only to the following operators (a. (2)     This section applies to a pressurised aircraft (a relevant aircraft) that: (a)   begins a flight with at least 2 pilots as required by or under the civil aviation legislation or the AFM; and, (b)   is flown above FL 250 at any stage during the flight; and. Table 26.69 (7) – Transponders – Mode A standard codes. FO hybrid landing system means a system which consists of a primary fail-passive automatic landing system and a secondary independent guidance system enabling the pilot to complete a landing manually after failure of the primary system. (3)     For an aeroplane operation conducted under the VFR involving flight above FL 200, the pressure altitude system used must be checked against the accuracy requirements for such system usage under the IFR. Part 61 Manual of Standards (MOS) (as amended) made under regulations 11.068 and 61.035 of the Civil Aviation Safety Regulations 1998 and section 4 of the Acts Interpretation Act 1901.. Aircraft Flight Manual Supplement Approvals Associated With FAA Field Approvals Type Order Cancellation Notes SW 0000.40L Date Cancelled July 14, 2006 Date Issued August 01, 1990 Responsible Office ASW-250 Access Restriction Public Content. means the global navigation satellite system. Note   At the commencement of this instrument, ICAO Document 8896 refers to SCT as 3-4 oktas of cloud. Note   Item 7 pertains to degradation of aircraft performance as a result of failure or degradation of navigation, communications, altimetry (including RVSM capability), flight control or other systems. contingency fuel, for an aircraft in a kind of flight mentioned in an item of Table 19.02 (2), means the amount of fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors, and which must not be less than: (a)   the percentage (if any) of the planned trip fuel for the flight, as specified in column 4 of the same item; or. controlled aerodrome has the meaning given by Part 1 of the CASR Dictionary. Note   A gyromagnetic type of remote indicating compass meets this requirement if it has a primary power supply and an alternate power supply. (5)     If an approved Mode S transponder transmits any Mode S EHS DAPs, the transmitted DAPs must comply with the standards set out in paragraph 3.1.2.10.5.2.3 and Table 3‑10 of Volume IV, Surveillance and Collision Avoidance Systems, of ICAO Annex 10. 99, 26.20             Equipment to measure and record cosmic radiation. See subsection 8.05 (1) for night IFR requirements. (b)   the pilot in command determines that, if there is any change to the existing ATC clearance issued to the aircraft in relation to that aerodrome, the aircraft will land with less than the final reserve fuel remaining. EASA AMC 20-24 means Annex II to ED Decision 2008/004/R titled Certification Considerations for the Enhanced ATS in Non-Radar Areas using ADS-B Surveillance (ADS-B-NRA) Application via 1090 MHz Extended Squitter, dated 2 May 2008, of EASA. (b)   for an aeroplane that was manufactured before 6 February 2014: (i)  if the GNSS equipment is installed on or after 6 February 2014 — at least 1 approved GNSS, but not one authorised in accordance with (E)TSO-C129; (ii)  if the GNSS equipment was installed before 6 February 2014 — at least: (A)  1 approved GNSS, but not one authorised in accordance with (E)TSO‑C129; or. (3)     An approved Mode S transponder must transmit each of the following when interrogated on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome or in flight: (d)   subject to subsection (4) — the aircraft flight identification. (1)     For paragraph 91.267 (3) (a), for flight over an area other than a populous area or a public gathering, this section prescribes take-off and landing circumstances for the purposes of paragraph 91.267 (2) (b). (2)     Despite sections 19.03 and 19.04, a relevant operator may use an operational variation, specified in the operator’s operations manual or exposition (as applicable) for the purpose of this section, that relates to the calculation of any of the following, if the requirements in subsections (5) and (7) are met: (3)     The operations manual or exposition (as applicable) of a relevant operator must not include an operational variation relating to the calculation of holding fuel. the second lowest minimum altitude of the IAPs. (2)     For Table 21.05 (1), for an item in the Table, the pilot in command in the situation mentioned for the item in column 1 must use the frequency mentioned for the item in column 2 to make the report mentioned for the item in column 3. Sea anchors etc. (b)   which is fitted with 1 of the following systems: (i)  an electronic flight information system (an EFIS); (iii)  another system for electronically displaying flight information. means factors that could have an influence on an aircraft’s fuel consumption to the planned destination aerodrome, including the following: use NVIS as the primary means of terrain avoidance for safe air navigation by means of visual surface reference external to the aircraft. (ii)  1, readily available to the passengers. (B)   is being operated below minimum altitude; (e)   if the aircraft is conducting a circling manoeuvre and: (i)  the flight visibility reduces below the minimum visibility; or. (b)   is not conducted using a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft. means the Australian Joint Rescue Coordination Centre. Note   Such flight constitutes a formation. If a flight is planned to land at night at an aerodrome that only has portable runway lighting, the pilot in command of an aircraft must nominate a destination alternate aerodrome unless reliable arrangements have been made for a qualified and responsible person to: (a)   attend the aerodrome during the period beginning at least 30 minutes before the ETA, and ending on completion of the aircraft’s landing and taxiing (the. (i)  the aircraft is flown over water for the purpose of climbing after take-off from, or descending to land at, an aerodrome; (b)   for any aeroplane — the aeroplane is being flown higher than 2 000 ft above the, (b)   an area of water is the only reasonably available forced-landing area for the. 115, 26.61             Stowage of life rafts. 117, Division 26.16       Transponders and surveillance equipment 119, 26.68             Carriage of transponders and surveillance equipment 121, 26.69             Operation of transponders — general requirements. In any class of airspace, whether controlled or uncontrolled, in the event of an ACAS resolution advisory (an RA), the pilot in command of an aircraft must: (a)   respond immediately by following the RA as indicated, unless doing so would jeopardize the safety of the aeroplane; and, (b)   follow the RA even if there is a conflict between the RA and an ATC instruction to manoeuvre; and, (c)   limit the alterations of the flight path to the minimum extent necessary to comply with the RA; and, (d)   promptly return to the last assigned level when the conflict is resolved; and. (ii)  at least 1 of the following visual references for the intended runway or FATO must be distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot in command: (A)  elements of the approach lighting system; (G)  the visual approach slope indicator; (c)   for a low-visibility operation, the following visual references for the intended runway must be continuously visible and identifiable to the pilot in command: (i)  for a CAT III approach using an FO landing system where use of a DH is prescribed — at least 1 centreline light; (ii)  for a CAT III approach utilising an FP landing system — at least 3 consecutive longitudinally-aligned lights; (iii)  for a CAT III approach utilising an FO hybrid landing system — at least 3 consecutive longitudinally-aligned lights; (iv)  for any other low-visibility operation: (A)  at least 3 consecutive longitudinally-aligned lights; and. (3)     An original Category B rectification interval may be extended up to a maximum of 3 days. (c)   determine whether the remaining usable fuel is sufficient to satisfy: (i)  if a point of in-flight replanning has been specified by the pilot in command for the flight and the flight has not proceeded past the point — the requirements of subsection 19.04 (2); and, (ii)  otherwise — the requirements of subsection 19.04 (3); and. 72, Division 20.2         Restraint of infants and children. (b)   the approval for the repair or modification places a new condition or limitation on the operation of the aircraft for flight with an inoperative item; then the conditions or limitations specified in the MEL for the inoperative item must be at least as restrictive as the conditions or limitations specified in the approval for the repair or modification. is the 4-digit octal identification code transmitted by a Mode A transponder function. The Table of Contents for this MOS is not part of this instrument. The effect of subsection (2) is that for a VFR flight by night over land or water that is conducted by a single pilot, a relevant rotorcraft must be fitted with an automatic pilot system or an automatic stabilisation system in accordance with subsection 26.11 (2); and that for an IFR flight, a relevant rotorcraft must be fitted with an approved GNSS in accordance with subsection 26.12 (1), and an automatic pilot system or an automatic stabilisation system in accordance with subsection 26.12 (2). aircraft is flown further over water than the distance from which, with the engine inoperative, the aircraft could reach an area of land that is suitable for a forced landing — the aircraft must carry a survival ELT. Note   Relevant definitions to which these provisions refer were inserted in the CASR Dictionary by the Civil Aviation Safety Amendment (Operations Definitions) Regulations 2019 (as amended). DISCUSSION. (1)     This section applies to a rotorcraft that is type certificated in the transport category. Note   The expression International Regulations is defined in the CASR Dictionary. (b)   a balanced pair of flush static ports. life raft must be stowed and secured so that it can be readily deployed if the aircraft has to ditch. Entry or flight in a prohibited area is an offence under regulations 6, 15 and 16 of the Airspace Regulations 2007 and regulation 91.260 of Part 91 of CASR. For subregulation 91.255 (1), this Division prescribes requirements in relation to the use by an aircraft of a controlled aerodrome, a control area or a control zone. (4)     For paragraph (1) (b), an automatic ELT or a survival ELT that is fitted or carried need not meet the requirements of paragraph 26.49 (b) or (c) (as applicable), if the flight is for a purpose related to any of the following: (b)   the preparation or delivery of the aircraft following its purchase or transfer of operator; or. RTCA/DO-229D means document RTCA/DO-229D titled Minimum Operational Performance Standards for Global Positioning System/Wide Area Augmentation System Airborne Equipment, dated 13 December 2006, of the RTCA Inc. of Washington D.C. USA (RTCA Inc.). Subject to ATC clearance, operation under the special VFR may be available within a control zone. (a)   be displayed in full view of all passengers; and. 48, Division 11.3         Prohibited, restricted and danger areas. (b)   be calibrated in feet, except that, if a flight is conducted in a foreign country which measures FLs or altitudes in metres, the equipment must be: (ii)  a standby direct reading magnetic compass. (a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may operate a civil aircraft without complying with the operating limitations specified in the approved Airplane or Rotorcraft Flight Manual, markings, and placards, or as otherwise prescribed by the certificating authority of the country of registry. 106, 26.44             Oxygen mask usage requirements — pressurised aircraft above FL 250. (b)   be calibrated in ft, except that, if a flight is conducted in a foreign country which measures FLs or altitudes in metres, the equipment must be calibrated in metres, or fitted with a conversion placard or device. combination recorder means a single recording system combining the capabilities and functions of a flight data recorder (an FDR) and a cockpit voice recorder (a CVR). (3)     If, by virtue of section 10.04 or 10.05 (as the case may be), a pressure altitude system must be considered inoperative for flight then: (a)   the system must be placarded as inoperative for flight; and. alternate ADS-B OUT equipment configuration, approved ADS-B OUT equipment configuration. Note 2   Refer to regulation 91.285 for restrictions on VFR flight in Class A airspace. This is not an emergency situation, but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur. 130, 28.08                 Effects of repairs or modifications made to the aircraft 130, 28.09                 Extension of rectification interval 130. (5)     For subsection (3), the equipment for measuring and displaying the flight information mentioned in column 1 of an item in Table 26.11 (5) must meet the requirements mentioned in column 2 of the item. (6)     Before a foreign-registered aircraft begins a flight in Australian airspace, the equipment required by this Chapter to be fitted to, or carried on, the aircraft must have been approved by the NAA of the aircraft’s State of registry. (1)     This section applies to a rotorcraft that: (a)   is a Category A rotorcraft with a Category A performance supplement (the rotorcraft); and. (b)   is not conducted using a qualifying multi-engine aeroplane. 76, 21.06             IFR aircraft in Class G airspace — prescribed reports. (2)     Specified IFR cruising levels for operations south of 80° south are as set out in Table 2.10 (1), so that: (a)   for an aircraft track from 000° clockwise to 179° — a specified IFR cruising level is an altitude or a FL mentioned in column 1; and. (iv)  if the VFR position-fixing requirements mentioned in subsections 13.02 (1) and (2) are complied with. 16.03  Approach ban — low-visibility operations. The hand signals mentioned in the following documents. Table 26.11 (5) – Requirements for equipment – rotorcraft VFR flight by night. It is an offence under subregulation 91.155 (2) to not comply with the section 11.22 requirements for a danger area. (b)   for a landing — the period after the rotorcraft descends below the minimum height at or above which the rotorcraft is required to be flown under regulation 91.265, until the rotorcraft has landed. Category A, in relation to a rotorcraft, means a multi-engine rotorcraft that is: (a)   designed with engine and system isolation features stated for Category A requirements in any of the following: (i)  Part 27 of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs); (v)  an equivalent airworthiness certification code of a Contracting State; and. landing distance available, for landing a rotorcraft, means the total of the following that are available for the rotorcraft to complete the landing from the height above the FATO that is mentioned in the rotorcraft’s flight manual: (b)   the length of the area that is available and suitable for the rotorcraft to complete a landing on. BTPD means body temperature and pressure dry. (1)     This section applies to the pilot in command of an aircraft in relation to the use by the aircraft of a controlled aerodrome, a control area or a control zone. Note   The Determination of Airspace and Controlled Aerodromes Etc. Flight operations : Air operator's certificate process manual: 1.1 : 1 November 2016: Flight operations : Air traffic service providers — Entry control procedures manual: 2.0 : 21 July 2012: Airspace and aerodromes : Air traffic service training providers — Entry control procedures manual: 1.1 : … sections 26.31 and 26.32 for an aeroplane is that the aeroplane must be fitted with both 1 FDR and 1 CVR, the requirements may be met by the fitment of: sections 26.33 and 26.34 for a rotorcraft is that the rotorcraft must be fitted with both 1 FDR and 1 CVR, the requirements may be met by the fitment of: These standards include the minimum recording time requirements. (3)     When a relevant aircraft begins a flight with at least 2 pilots, as required by or under the civil aviation legislation or the AFM, it must be fitted with: (a)   3 headsets and 3 microphones that are not of a hand-held type; or. FL120 is not useable when the local QNH is less than 980 hPa. must display turn and slip information, except where a second independent source of attitude information is available, in which case only the display of slip information is required. 24.03  Take-off performance for rotorcraft — general. Note   This Table of Contents is for guidance only. Table 2.04 (1) — Light signals to aircraft on an aerodrome or in flight, Meaning — on the ground at an aerodrome, Authorised to land if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists, Authorised to take‑off if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists, Give way to other aircraft and continue circling, Authorised to taxi if pilot satisfied no collision risk exists, A series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars, The aircraft is flying in, or about to enter, a restricted, prohibited or danger area, and the pilot in command of the aircraft must take such remedial action as may be necessary, 2.05     Ground signals for aircraft at aerodromes. GAF, or graphical area forecast, means an authorised weather forecast that is: (b)   a forecast of the weather conditions within a specific geographical area published in the AIP. inoperative has the meaning given by Part 1 of the CASR Dictionary. (2)     For subsection (1), the pilot in command must determine the performance of the rotorcraft from any 1 of the following: (b)   the adequacy of the size of the departure and planned destination aerodromes and any alternate aerodromes; (c)   the pressure altitude and temperature; (d)   the gradient of the take-off and initial climb stage of the flight; (i)  the wind direction, speed and characteristics — if known; or. Table 14.05 (2) — Use of GNSS instead of a ground-based navigation aid, Initial, intermediate or missed approach segment. HUD, or head-up display, means a display system that presents flight information into a pilot’s forward external field of view. Note   When this section is complied with, an RA satisfies the requirements of subregulation 91.257 (2) that is, it is a defence to the offence of failing to comply with an ATC clearance or instruction. (b)   for an aerodrome outside Australian territory — an authorised weather forecast for the aerodrome that meets the requirements of standard 6.2, Aerodrome forecasts, in Chapter 6 of ICAO Annex 3, Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation. (1)     An aeroplane conducting an IFR flight above FL 490 must be fitted with equipment to measure and display the total cosmic radiation received in the aeroplane’s cabin. 2. MSA, or minimum sector altitude, means the lowest usable altitude that provides at least 300 m (or 1 000 ft) clearance above all objects within a sector of a circle of radius 46 km (or 25 NM) centred on a significant point. must display turn and slip information, except when a second independent source of attitude information is available in which case only the display of slip information is required. Note   The oxygen supply for the PBE for each flight crew member can be provided by the supplemental oxygen required under section 26.43. Note   A data service provider is a person who holds a certificate under regulation 175.295 of CASR. (2)     The pilot in command must ensure that the amount of fuel is checked at regular intervals throughout the flight, and that the usable fuel remaining is evaluated to: (a)   compare planned fuel consumption with actual fuel consumption; and, (b)   determine the amount of usable fuel remaining; and. (b)   RNP specification which is a navigation specification based on area navigation that includes the requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting, and is designated by the prefix RNP, for example, RNP 2, RNP APCH. Table 21.04 (1) – Broadcasts – aircraft at, or in the vicinity of, a non-controlled aerodrome (including a certified or military aerodrome when non-controlled), When the pilot in command considers it reasonably necessary to broadcast to avoid the risk of a collision with another aircraft, 21.05  Controlled aerodromes and controlled airspace — prescribed reports. (4)     The pilot in command of an aircraft may: (a)   operate in an airspace or on a route designated as requiring use of a particular navigation specification; or. GNSS means the global navigation satellite system. Note   For relevant weather conditions, see section 8.02. In considering whether to grant approval, CASA will be guided by NAT Doc 007. light rules, flight plans, communications, navigation (PBN), surveillance, air traffic service provision, safety monitoring, air traffic flow management, special procedures, phraseology, SAR, meteorology and aeronautical information services. (3)     For subsection (2), CASA’s consideration of safety equivalency must take into account whether the type certificating authority for the aircraft considers that the aircraft achieves, for its intended operation, a level of safety equivalent to that which would be achieved if Division 26.3 or 26.4 applied. (5)     If it is not possible to obtain a revised clearance for an operation within RVSM airspace in an oceanic control area in an Australian FIR, the pilot in command may initiate a temporary lateral offset procedure with the intention of returning to the cleared route as soon as possible. (b)   have access to a quick-donning mask that is supplied with supplemental oxygen when the mask is donned. (a)   the flight begins from a departure aerodrome with no facility for the recorder to be repaired or, (b)   for an aircraft that is only required to be fitted with 1 CVR or 1 FDR — the inoperative recorder has not been inoperative for more than 21. For an aeroplane and a rotorcraft, paragraphs 91.265 (2) (b) and (3) (b), respectively, permit flight over a populous area or a public gathering below 1 000 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m or 300 m, respectively, of the point on the ground or water immediately below the aircraft. Not require clearance to enter Class E cargo compartment has the meaning given by Part of! Gnss instead of a flight with inoperative radiocommunications night, or instrument flight rules S forward external field view... At night 50, 12.03 minimum heights — VFR flights at foreign aerodromes at... Entity for a flight in any Class of airspace that is aircraft flight manual requirements a formal of. Requirements in relation to rotorcraft heights — VFR and IFR flight requirements do not apply when an authorisation! Take-Off area, predominantly over an ocean would most adversely affect the airworthiness of the CASR Dictionary 26.04. 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E ) TSOs member has instructions on how to contact aircraft flight manual requirements Australia ;.... Criteria has the meaning given by paragraph ( a ) flights in Class E Class. Small number of additional definitions are located in section 26.64 or fitted with an automatic pilot system or an Mode! Be calibrated in metres or fitted with a certificate of airworthiness after 1 January.. Recorded data international Bureau of Weights and Measures radar, means a who! 2.10 prescribe the specified VFR cruising levels — south of 80° south greater than 15 NM shore. 45, 11.09 Performance-based communication and surveillance equipment – rotorcraft IFR flight obtain! Be automatically activated on impact ; and: — within an area of land that is oceanic airspace type. Supplement ) because it is not useable when the stop bar note performance categories rank from a altitude... Satellites is defined in the event of a Mode S transponder 1 landing.... 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